I have a working 11.7 openedge database on a Windows server. There is an appserver on the Windows server that connects to the Windows database that is working perfectly.
For "mostly political reasons", I am tasked with moving the Windows database from the Windows server to a Linux server.
So is this a "legitimate configuration"?
I plan on dumping the Windows data and definitions and load it into a Linux database.
I will start the Linux database with -S -N tcp, etc.
I will change the Windows appserver to point to the Linux server with -H <ip-address> -S <tcp/socket> .
So will the Windows appserver connect and execute code on the Linux database with just these modifications? - ie. no need to recompile the code that the Windows appserver is using to connect to the LINUX database whereas before it was connecting to a Windows database?
Will there be CRC errors or any other complications?
Help, I'm clueless...
For "mostly political reasons", I am tasked with moving the Windows database from the Windows server to a Linux server.
So is this a "legitimate configuration"?
I plan on dumping the Windows data and definitions and load it into a Linux database.
I will start the Linux database with -S -N tcp, etc.
I will change the Windows appserver to point to the Linux server with -H <ip-address> -S <tcp/socket> .
So will the Windows appserver connect and execute code on the Linux database with just these modifications? - ie. no need to recompile the code that the Windows appserver is using to connect to the LINUX database whereas before it was connecting to a Windows database?
Will there be CRC errors or any other complications?
Help, I'm clueless...